Standardized Awareness Training (AWR-160-SAT) test answers FREE TEST ANSWERS

1. Individuals trained to the awareness level are personnel who are likely to witness an incident and have been trained to initiate emergency response by:
• Answer: Notifying the proper authorities
• Explanation: Awareness-level personnel are trained to recognize an incident and take initial actions, including notifying the appropriate authorities to ensure a timely and effective emergency response.
2. There are many challenges to identifying potential terrorist activities. Which of the following is critical to meeting that challenge?
• Answer: Gathering target intelligence
• Explanation: Gathering target intelligence is crucial for identifying potential terrorist activities. This involves collecting information about potential targets, which aids in preventing and responding to terrorist threats.
3. Which of the following activities are indicators of potential terrorist activity?
• Answer: All of the above [Gathering target intelligence, Acquiring materials necessary for an attack, Preparing weapons]
• Explanation: Indicators of potential terrorist activity include gathering target intelligence, acquiring materials for an attack, and preparing weapons. Recognizing these signs is vital for early intervention.
4. Which of the following might be considered a suspicious object?
• Answer: All of the above [Unattended bags, Unsolicited objects received through the mail, Vehicles with an unidentified owner]
• Explanation: Unattended bags, unsolicited objects in the mail, and vehicles with unidentified owners can all be considered suspicious objects that may pose a threat and require investigation.
5. The Food and Agriculture sector has critical dependencies with which other Critical Infrastructure and Key Resources (CIKR) sectors?
• Answer: All of the above [Transportation Systems, Energy, Water]
• Explanation: The Food and Agriculture sector has critical dependencies on transportation systems, energy, and water. These interdependencies highlight the importance of safeguarding these sectors.
6. You are a first responder dispatched to a hazardous materials incident. You find evidence that it may be the result of criminal or terrorist activity. Who would you first notify?
• Answer: Incident Commander
• Explanation: In the event of a hazardous materials incident with potential criminal or terrorist involvement, the first responder should notify the Incident Commander to initiate the appropriate response and coordination.
7. What is the primary consideration when encountering a hazardous material or Weapon of Mass Destruction (WMD) release?
• Answer: Recognize the hazard/threat
• Explanation: The primary consideration when encountering a hazardous material or WMD release is to recognize the hazard or threat to initiate appropriate protective actions and response measures.
8. The acronym RAIN represents several action steps to help responders at a Hazardous Material/Weapons of Mass Destruction (HazMat/WMD) incident. What are these action steps?
• Answer: Recognize, Avoid, Isolate, and Notify
• Explanation: The RAIN concept involves recognizing the hazard, avoiding exposure, isolating the area, and notifying appropriate authorities. These steps guide responders in handling HazMat/WMD incidents.
9. The RAIN concept is used by individuals to quickly gather and process information and to synthesize the information to facilitate life safety actions at an incident. The letter "A" in RAIN stands for:
• Answer: Avoid
• Explanation: In the RAIN concept, the letter "A" stands for "Avoid," emphasizing the importance of avoiding exposure to hazardous materials or WMDs to ensure responder safety.
10. Which one of these government agencies establishes the nation's overall transportation policies?
• Answer: Department of Transportation (DOT)
• Explanation: The Department of Transportation (DOT) is responsible for establishing the nation's overall transportation policies, including regulations and standards.
11. A label or placard with a three-bladed fan usually refers to which class?
• Answer: Radioactive
• Explanation: A label or placard with a three-bladed fan symbol typically indicates materials that are radioactive. This is used to classify and communicate the nature of the hazardous material.
12. A label or a placard colored black and white with a skull and crossbones falls under which class?
• Answer: Class 6 - Toxic
• Explanation: A black and white label or placard with a skull and crossbones is used to signify materials that are toxic, falling under Class 6 classification.
13. In detecting clues to the presence of hazardous materials at the scene of an incident, using the sense of touch, taste, or __________ is not recommended.
• Answer: Smell
• Explanation: The sense of smell is not recommended for detecting hazardous materials, as inhaling potentially harmful substances can pose serious risks to the responder.
14. Protective actions are "those steps taken to safeguard the health and safety of emergency responders and the public during an incident involving releases of dangerous goods." Protective actions are listed in the green- and ____________ -bordered pages of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG).
• Answer: Orange
• Explanation: Protective actions are listed in the green- and orange-bordered pages of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG). These actions guide responders in ensuring safety during incidents involving dangerous goods.
15. In the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG), there are two ways to identify material: United Nations ID number (yellow section) or the printed name of the material (blue section).
• Answer: True
• Explanation: True. The ERG provides two ways to identify materials – by United Nations ID number in the yellow section or by the printed name of the material in the blue section.
16. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 704 fixed facility markings are ______-shaped signs.
• Answer: Diamond
• Explanation: NFPA 704 fixed facility markings are diamond-shaped signs, commonly used to communicate the hazards associated with materials stored or used at a facility.
17. The bill of lading is normally found in the:
• Answer: Cab of the truck
• Explanation: The bill of lading, a document detailing the contents of a shipment, is typically found in the cab of the truck transporting hazardous materials.
18. Shipping papers used during rail transportation of a hazardous material are called a:
• Answer: Consist or waybill
• Explanation: Shipping papers used during rail transportation of hazardous materials are referred to as a consist or waybill.
19. Labels are applied to individual Hazardous Materials (HazMat) packages. They are approximately a:
• Answer: 4-inch diamond
• Explanation: Hazardous material labels applied to individual packages are typically in the form of a 4-inch diamond, indicating the nature of the contained material.
20. The shipping paper used in water transportation is called a:
• Answer: Dangerous cargo manifest
• Explanation: The shipping paper used in water transportation for hazardous materials is known as a dangerous cargo manifest.
21. An MSDS provides detailed information about a hazardous material and any danger related to the material. MSDS is an acronym for:
• Answer: Materials Safety Data Sheet
• Explanation: MSDS stands for Materials Safety Data Sheet, providing comprehensive information about hazardous materials and associated dangers.
22. Which are the correct three methods for determining the appropriate guide pages in the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)?
• Answer: United Nations/North American (UN/NA) Identification (ID) number, the name of the material, or a placard
• Explanation: The three correct methods for determining the appropriate guide pages in the ERG are UN/NA ID number, the name of the material, or a placard.
23. The __________-colored section of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) contains a table of chemicals organized by ID number and includes only the product name and guide number.
• Answer: Yellow
• Explanation: The yellow-colored section of the ERG contains a table of chemicals organized by ID number, providing the product name and guide number.
24. Referring to the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG), what is the United Nations Identification (UN ID) number for the chemical agent lewisite?
• Answer: 2810
• Explanation: The UN ID number for the chemical agent lewisite, as per the ERG, is 2810.
25. Recommended initial isolation and protective action zones are represented graphically by using geometric shapes. What is the shape of the initial isolation zone?
• Answer: Circle
• Explanation: The initial isolation zone, as recommended, is represented graphically by a circle.
26. There are four types of Chemical Warfare Agents (CWA). Of the four, which agent causes skin burns and blisters?
• Answer: Blister agent
• Explanation: Blister agents are a type of Chemical Warfare Agent (CWA) that causes skin burns and blisters upon exposure.
27. What Chemical Warfare Agent (CWA) primarily attacks the airway and lungs, causing irritation of the entire airway from the nose to the lungs resulting in what is commonly known as dry-land drowning?
• Answer: Choking agent
• Explanation: Choking agents primarily attack the airway and lungs, causing irritation and symptoms akin to dry-land drowning.
28. There are four types of Chemical Warfare Agents (CWA). Which CWA prevents the blood from providing oxygen to tissue and the organs?
• Answer: Blood agent
• Explanation: Blood agents are Chemical Warfare Agents (CWA) that prevent the blood from providing oxygen to tissues and organs.
29. Toxic Industrial Chemicals (TIC) are chemicals used and/or created by industries that can have a significant impact on human health if released. Three examples of TICs that are readily available are anhydrous ammonia, hydrogen cyanide, and:
• Answer: Chlorine
• Explanation: Chlorine is another example of a Toxic Industrial Chemical (TIC) that can have a significant impact on human health if released.
30. All of the following are advantages of using chemical agents for terrorist activities except:
• Answer: Deployment is hazardous to terrorists
• Explanation: The deployment of chemical agents is generally hazardous to terrorists, so this statement is an exception among the advantages.
31. Common sources in the community where Toxic Industrial Chemicals (TIC) can be found include which of the following locations?
• Answer: All of the above [Manufacturing plants, Food processing and storage facilities, Shipyards]
• Explanation: TICs can be found in various locations, including manufacturing plants, food processing/storage facilities, and shipyards.
32. TRACEM-P is an acronym used to outline potential hazards and mechanisms of injury at Hazardous Materials (HazMat) incidents. What does the "P" in TRACEM-P stand for?
• Answer: Psychological
• Explanation: In TRACEM-P, the "P" stands for Psychological, highlighting the consideration of psychological hazards and impacts in HazMat incidents.
33. Indicators of a possible Chemical Warfare Agent (CWA) attack include all of the following except:
• Answer: Numerous terrorists
• Explanation: Indicators of a possible CWA attack involve signs related to the release of chemical agents, not the number of terrorists involved.
34. In regard to control zones, the Incident Command Post (ICP) is located in the:
• Answer: Cold zone
• Explanation: The Incident Command Post (ICP) is typically located in the cold zone, which is the area with the least immediate hazard.
35. What type of biological agent is anthrax?
• Answer: Bacteria
• Explanation: Anthrax is a bacterial biological agent.
36. There are three types of biological agents. They are bacteria, viruses, and toxins. Of the three types, which does smallpox fall under?
• Answer: Viruses
• Explanation: Smallpox falls under the category of viruses among biological agents.
37. Viruses are a type of biological agent that needs a host to replicate and spread. An example of this biological agent is:
• Answer: Smallpox
• Explanation: Smallpox is an example of a virus that requires a host for replication and spreading.
38. What type of incident involves the ease of spreading and the difficulty of detection?
• Answer: Biological
• Explanation: Biological incidents involve the ease of spreading and the difficulty of detection due to the nature of biological agents.
39. The advantages of using biological agents include:
• Answer: All of the above [Availability, Difficulty of detection, Ease of spreading]
• Explanation: Biological agents offer advantages such as availability, difficulty of detection, and ease of spreading, making them potentially attractive to malicious actors.
40. The effects of a biological attack may not be immediately visible at a scene. Which group would likely be the first to observe the indications of an attack?
• Answer: Health care workers and emergency communication operators
• Explanation: Health care workers and emergency communication operators are likely to be the first to observe indications of a biological attack due to their roles in monitoring public health and emergency response.
41. Which of these is not a potential source in your community for biological agents?
• Answer: Auto manufacturing plants
• Explanation: Auto manufacturing plants are not typically associated with the production or storage of biological agents.
42. Abandoned spray devices and unscheduled and unusual spraying activities are potential indicators of a possible biological incident.
• Answer: True
• Explanation: True. Abandoned spray devices and unscheduled or unusual spraying activities can be indicators of a possible biological incident, as they may suggest the release of biological agents.
43. Of the different types of radiation, which can travel hundreds of meters in open air and can penetrate most materials?
• Answer: Gamma particles
• Explanation: Gamma particles can travel hundreds of meters in open air and can penetrate most materials due to their high energy.
44. Radiation can travel:
• Answer: In all directions
• Explanation: Radiation can travel in all directions from its source.
45. An atom is the smallest particle of an element that can exist either alone or in combination with another element. Only unstable atoms release excess energy in the form of rays and particles.
• Answer: True
• Explanation: True. Unstable atoms release excess energy in the form of rays and particles, a phenomenon known as radioactivity.
46. A Radiological Dispersal Device (RDD) is a conventional explosion that is used to spread radioactive material. This is also known as a(n):
• Answer: Dirty bomb
• Explanation: An RDD, also known as a dirty bomb, is a conventional explosion used to spread radioactive material.
47. The difference between a nuclear weapon detonation and a conventional explosion is:
• Answer: Fission
• Explanation: The key difference between a nuclear weapon detonation and a conventional explosion is the process of fission, which involves the splitting of atomic nuclei in a nuclear explosion.
48. Heavy containers, delayed effects, and hazards to terrorists are disadvantages of using radiological material for terrorist activity.
• Answer: True
• Explanation: True. Using radiological material for terrorist activity has disadvantages, including heavy containers, delayed effects, and hazards even to the terrorists deploying such materials.
49. Potential sources of radioactive material can be located in:
• Answer: All of the above
• Explanation: Potential sources of radioactive material can be found in various places, including medical facilities, industrial sites, and research institutions.
50. The principles of __________, __________, and __________ are usually applied to radiological incidents but they also apply to chemical agents.
• Answer: Time; distance; shielding
• Explanation: Time, distance, and shielding are principles applied to radiological incidents, but they also apply to protection from chemical agents.
51. The concepts of time, distance, and shielding are important for protection from:
• Answer: Radiation
• Explanation: Time, distance, and shielding are critical concepts for protection from radiation exposure.
52. Indicators of a possible radiological incident include all of the following except:
• Answer: Microwaves
• Explanation: Microwaves are not indicators of a radiological incident; indicators usually involve signs related to radiation exposure.
53. Electrically initiated Improvised Explosive Devices (IED) generally consist of four components. Those components are represented by the acronym PIES, which stands for Power source, Initiator, Explosive, and:
• Answer: Switch
• Explanation: In electrically initiated IEDs, PIES stands for Power source, Initiator, Explosive, and Switch.
54. The three categories of high explosives are:
• Answer: Primary, Secondary, Tertiary
• Explanation: High explosives are categorized into three types: Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary, based on their sensitivity and performance characteristics.
55. The acronym PIES is used to describe Improvised Explosive Devices (IED) components. PIES stands for:
• Answer: Power source, Initiator, Explosive, and Switch
• Explanation: PIES stands for Power source, Initiator, Explosive, and Switch, representing components of Improvised Explosive Devices (IED).
56. Additional explosive devices (also called secondary devices) are sometimes used specifically to target emergency responders.
• Answer: True
• Explanation: True. Secondary devices may be used to target emergency responders and complicate response efforts.
57. Some potential sources of explosives in your community include all of the following except:
• Answer: Elementary schools
• Explanation: Elementary schools are not typically potential sources of explosives in a community.
58. The indicators of a criminal/terrorist act involving explosives include a(n):
• Answer: Theft of explosives
• Explanation: The theft of explosives is an indicator of a potential criminal/terrorist act involving explosives.
59. In regard to protective actions for explosive devices, the area where the blast originates is referred to as ___________ perimeter/isolation zone.
• Answer: Hot
• Explanation: The area where the blast originates is referred to as the hot perimeter/isolation zone, which is the most immediate hazard area.
60. Trained responders will assess a post-blast site before entering the area. They will look for structural hazards such as:
• Answer: Glass, concrete and steel fragments, and collapse hazards
• Explanation: Trained responders assess post-blast sites for structural hazards such as glass, concrete and steel fragments, and potential collapse hazards before entering the area.